A couple of months ago we had a guest preacher at our church. He was a seasoned preacher, and overall, his message was edifying. There was one point he made, however, that had me shaking my head. He quoted John 14:2 where Jesus says “in my house are many mansions,” and then went on to explain that in the Greek this literally means “spiritual bodies.”
When we got home my wife asked me what I thought of the message. I told her I liked it, except for his absurd interpretation of John 14:2. She asked if I had looked up the Greek to know that this was the case. I told her no. She asked how I knew it was absurd, then. Here is what I said, and what I want to share with you: If someone says the correct translation of a certain word is radically different than the translation appearing in mainstream translations, then you can bet your bottom dollar the person is mistaken. Think about it, what are the chances that hundreds of individuals who dedicated their entire lives to understanding the Biblical languages are going to miss the boat by a mile, but an individual who has no specialized training in Biblical languages is going to get it right simply by looking up a few words in Strong’s Concordance?
Usually when preachers make claims like this it is because they went to their Strong’s or some Greek lexicon and picked out one of the many definitions offered for a word (the one they liked), not recognizing that context rather than dictionaries determine the meaning of words. In this case, however, neither “spiritual” nor “bodies” was even within the semantic range of meaning for either of the two Greek words in question. Where the preacher came up with his translation, God only knows. What I do know is that whenever you hear a preacher say the proper translation of some Greek or Hebrew word is miles apart from the way it is translated in mainstream translations, you should be highly skeptical of the claim. And if you are not able to verify it yourself, you are probably safe to reject it out-of-hand as exegetical nonsense.
January 7, 2011 at 6:06 am
Indeed – That’s how I view it – if the 100+ scholars that understand the language picked that translational word, it says to me that it is probably the best word available.
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January 7, 2011 at 7:30 am
Interesting, but scholars and preachers can be wrong. So many different translations is a case in point. Not to say they are all wrong and only preachers are right. It is best to take it all as suspect and research the Word of God for yourself. I know of many who take the word of Dr. “Preacher” over the Word of God simply because of the merits of education. It causes them not to do their on study. Besides just look at how many have missed the Apostolic message even though they have theological and are experts in language.
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January 7, 2011 at 7:32 am
opps. correction “Besides just look at how many have missed the Apostolic message even though they have theological and are experts in language.” Insert training after theological. 🙂
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January 7, 2011 at 7:47 am
cs,
I would be the first to agree. But notice two things. First, I am talking about translation, not interpretation. Second, I am speaking of “radically different.” It’s one thing to say a translator could have translated some particular word a little better in one particular Bible. It’s another thing to say all translators could have translated a particular word better in all Bibles. And it’s quite another thing to say that all translators in all Bibles completely missed the target by a mile. The difference between “many mansions/rooms” and “spiritual bodies” is such that the words are no longer recognizable. It’s an entirely different subject altogether, and that’s how one can be pretty sure they are being fed nonsense by someone who has no understanding of Biblical languages.
Jason
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January 7, 2011 at 9:21 am
Jason,
What about cases where the preacher admits that the Holy Spirit is the source of his translation or belief? Would you question the truth of the Holy Spirit, or the true nature of the spirit giving utterance?
Also, would you agree that only the tiniest slice of people would interpret Acts 2:38 in the way apostolics do? Does that invalidate their interpretation?
Arthur
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January 7, 2011 at 10:28 am
Arthur,
Both you and cs have shifted the conversation to interpretation, but that was not the point of my post. While I think there is some merit to applying the same principle to interpretation, I am talking about translation.
So when it comes to something like Acts 2:38, I am not talking about how people interpret the words, but how they translate the Greek words. If someone said it should really be translated, “And then Peter mimed to them, ‘Scream, and jump in the sanctuary of Jesus Christ for his glory, and you will be elated with joy’,” then you would be safe to dismiss this person as out in left-field.
As for someone saying the Holy Spirit gave them the translation, this would double your reason to dismiss the person’s claim. Indeed, it would justify you running out of the church!
Jason
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January 7, 2011 at 10:56 am
Jason,
Understood – yet the preacher illustrated was using a “new” translation to offer a new interpretation. The point offered is what you agreed with, both can be wrong and both often are wrong. I agree with you in every way but was trying to offer a broader view to not automatically count something right just because the majority of scholars offer it as right.
AMEN!!!! I think there is a balance between scholar and spirit-led preaching.
If I may ask, what is your preferred method of preaching? Topical or Expository? If you have a post about that I’ll comment further in the proper place! 🙂
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January 7, 2011 at 11:07 am
cs,
I am a topical guy. I would probably do more expository if I was a pastor, though.
Jason
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January 7, 2011 at 5:46 pm
Dude your taking all the fun out of translating and preaching it the most dramatic way!!!
Don’t be so literal. Man!
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January 7, 2011 at 6:08 pm
Darren,
I know I know. Theologians love to ruin Christians’ fun and joy. 🙂
Jason
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