David Berlinksi, an agnostic philosopher and mathematician, summarizes one of the philosophical arguments for a past-finite universe as follows:
“If a series of causes do not start, it cannot get going, and if it does not get going, then there will be no intermediate causes, and if there are no intermediate causes, then over here, where we have just noticed that a blow has caused a bruise, there is no explanation for what is before our eyes.[1] Either there is a first cause or there is no cause at all, and since there are causes at work in nature, there must be a first.[2]
Essentially, the argument is that the universe must have a finite past because we experience intermediate causes, and intermediate causes would not be possible if they were not preceded by a first cause that began the whole series.
Berlinksi thinks this is a weak, but not an absurd argument. Personally, I am conflicted about its cogency. On the one hand, it does appear weak. It rests on a tautology, and begs the question. To see how, let’s put the argument in deductive form:
P1 The universe consists of a causal series of events
P2 If a causal series does not begin, it cannot get going
P3 If a causal series cannot get going, there will be no intermediate causes
P4 We experience intermediate causes
P5 Therefore a causal chain got going
P6 Therefore a causal chain began
P7 Therefore the universe began to exist in the finite past
Premise 2 is clearly a tautology. It could be restated as “only that which begins, starts,” or “only that which begins, begins.” Not only is this an unhelpful truism, but it begs the question. In saying a causal series cannot “get going” unless it “begins” is to assume from the start what needs to be proved: that the universe “got going” as opposed to “has always been going.”[3] Says who? If the universe is eternal, nothing ever “got going,” and yet, clearly, there exists a causal series that “is going.” One cannot just stipulate that a causal series cannot exist unless it had a beginning, and then conclude that since a causal series does exist, it must have begun. One must demonstrate why it is that a causal series that did not begin cannot be.[4] I think this can be done.
A causal chain must begin with a first cause to avoid the problem of the impossibility of traversing an infinite. Just as it would be impossible to reach the top step of an infinite staircase, it is impossible to traverse an infinite number of past moments to reach the present. An endless series of events, by definition, has no end, and yet today would mark the end of that series. The concept of an infinite past, then, is incoherent. The past cannot consist of an infinite number of causal events. There had to be a first cause in the finite past that caused all subsequent, intermediate causes. In other words, it is impossible for there to be intermediate causes unless they find their origin in a first cause.
While this vindicates the conclusion of the original argument, it rests on premises that are so different that it can hardly be said to be a modification of the original argument. It seems to be a separate argument altogether. In deductive form the “modified” argument would appear as follows:
P1 The universe consists of a causal series of events
P2 If the causal series is infinite, today would mark the completion of that series
P3 It is impossible to complete an infinite series of events
P4 Therefore the causal series of events had a beginning
P5 Therefore the universe began to exist in the finite past
Does this mean, then, that the original argument should be discarded? Is the tautological nature of premise 2 beyond repair, dooming the entire argument? What do you think of my criticism of the argument? What about my logic? I have been thinking and writing on this for about five hours now. The more I think about it, and the more I write about it, the murkier it gets in my mind. I would appreciate the input of someone who is taking a fresh look at this argument for their insights. Thanks!
[1]Berlinski seems to have made a mental slip in saying the “blow has caused a bruise,” for this assumes a casually-connected chain of at least two events. But according to the argument, no causal relationship can be established between any events unless there is a first cause. As the argument goes, not only would we be unable to explain the cause of the blow, but we would be unable even to say the blow was causally related to the bruise.
[2]David Berlinski, The Devil’s Delusion: Atheism and Its Scientific Pretensions (New York: Crown Forum, 2008), 68-69.
[3]Not only does premise 2 beg the question, but it stacks the deck in favor of a past-finite universe by declaring that a causal series of events, to be an actual causal series of events, must have a beginning event. This is little short of definitional fiat.
[4]It should be pointed out that the defender of an eternal universe has no explanation for the causal series. If only that which has a beginning needs a cause, and the causal series has no beginning because the universe has no beginning, then there can’t be any cause or reason for it. It’s just been going on forever, inexplicably. This is not an intellectually satisfying answer, for it goes against our causal intuitions that everything has a cause, and an infinite regression of causes is impossible. Our causal intuitions tell us the regress must stop at some ultimate cause.
August 14, 2008 at 8:38 pm
Jason,
I think you are on the right track. However, my brain always blurs on such arguments. If I remember correctly Aquinas’s arguments didn’t work that simply and I think he believed that one could not make this assumption (that a cause demands a first-cause), however he instead claimed that one could never have an actual infinite, as you discuss. That’s all from old class memories…and I do know that his arguments are often summarized in ways far simpler than his actual formulations.
Of course, such arguments are persuasive depending on the person. Some will simply say, “oh, causality! Hume took care of that.” without thinking for themselves. No, Hume just showed that causality is tricky thing that can’t be proven merely by the senses. At some level, causality is an assumed concept. Yes or no? What do you think?
So I think you are right to see an assumption in P2. But isn’t that nearly always the case with such arguments? However, I think the gist of Berlinski is pretty straightforward: we seem to ourselves to be in the middle of a chain of events that we believe to be causally-related (we can’t live any other way practically speaking) and we know that things like bruises (a finite effect) start with some finite cause, a blow. We see the bruise, we assume the blow. So, if the whole universe is this way thus a first cause. If you buy it, it works. The whole “actual infinite is impossible” logic is solid but difficult for most and it seems that the statement “if a series of causes do not start, it cannot get going…and there will be no intermediate causes” is another (murkier or simpler perhaps depending on perspective) way of stating essentially the same thing.
I suppose to me, if you assume causality as most of intuitively do, then most arguments based on causality arguing back to a first cause are persuasive. At least as persuasive as such metaphysical arguments can be.
Now my head is murky.
Obviously you are reading Berlinski’s book. Is it a good read?
LikeLike
August 14, 2008 at 10:34 pm
I suppose that, rationally, I couldn’t say that an infinite series of causes is impossible. Given evidence of the past fifty years, such a universe woould seem to have to be one that is eternally in fluctuation, exploding, expanding, collapsing to another explosion. This seems to be the best that an atheist naturalist can do, these days.
The problem with it is that it is counterintuitive, even setting aside human feelings of knowledge of and relationship with a deity. Indeed, it is an outright offense against our ordinary sense of the world. We sense our libes as not only ongoing, but purposeful and meaningful. Among that series of causes are many of no trivial consequence according to our ordinary experience.
Purely rationally speaking, we can opt to accept or reject an original cause and purpose. That initial option is not dictated by reason. It is a predisposition that directs us to one or the other. If one establisheses a predisposition to no ultimate cause and purpose, then one lives with such a reality. And, one who is a priori (before assimilating data) disposed to embrace a cause, purpose and meaning, then one has a reality consonant with that. Neither must sacrifice rationality. But, it is manifest to me that the prior sacrifices a full understanding of a true beauty in experience.
LikeLike
August 18, 2008 at 11:48 am
Chad,
Berlinksi didn’t claim this was Aquinas’s argument. He just noted it as an argument for the finitude of the universe. I actually think it may be a straw man argument, given its question-begging premises, and the fact that I have never heard any apologist argue for the finitude of the universe using this argument.
You are right about Hume. Hume claims he was misunderstood—that he never claimed things can be uncaused. He wrote to John Stewart, “But allow me to tell you, that I never asserted so absurd a Proposition as that any thing might arise without a Cause: I only maintain’d, that our Certainty of the Falshood of that Proposition proceeded neither from Intuition nor Demonstration; but from another Source.” (David Hume to John Stewart, February, 1754). He also chimed in on the notion of an infinite past, saying, “An infinite number of real parts of time passing in succession…appears so evident a contradiction that no man whose judgment is not corrupted…would ever be able to admit of it.” (An Enquiry Concerning Human Understanding). How he reconciled that with his belief that the universe was eternal, I do not know.
I do think the principle of causality is assumed by everyone. It has been consistently affirmed by our experience, never contradicted, and thus should be accepted as a prima facie truth. Even when we do not know the cause of something, we assume there is one. This is the assumption of science. And no one fears this principle will cease. William Lane Craig likes to say during his lectures, “No one is fearful that while they are here at this lecture, a horse might have popped into existence in your living room, uncaused, and is soiling your carpet.” Well said!
to be continued…
LikeLike
August 18, 2008 at 11:49 am
continued…
As for assumptions, there is a difference between making assumptions (which all deductive arguments do), and begging the question (which is a logical fallacy). One can challenge a premise on the grounds that it is assuming something that is disputable and/or implausible. If the assumption is not supported, then the conclusion of the argument may be undercut. Or if it shown to be false, then the conclusion of the argument will have been rebutted. But in either case, the argument is valid in form, but unsound in its conclusion. But when one of the premises commits the formal fallacy of question begging, the argument itself is invalid, and thus the conclusion unsound (even if it is true, and can be supported by another deductive argument). The problem with this argument is that one of its premises contains a logical fallacy, making the argument itself invalid, and the conclusion unsound.
Apart from the question-begging nature of premises 1 and 2, I also agree with the gist of the argument (effects are related to prior causes, so the universe must have a cause), but if you take away those premises all you are left with is the idea that effects have causes. That is hardly disputed. What is disputed is whether the universe had a beginning, and thus requires a cause. If it didn’t, then it is false to think a causal chain of events had to have a beginning, because we would be experiencing causal chains of events that had no beginning. After all, ur modal intuition is that whatever begins to exist must have a cause. If the universe never began to exist, it needs no cause. If it needs no cause, then the effects in the universe need no cause either. They’ve just been existing eternally, as a brute fact.
It seems to me, that in order to make the argument work, it needs to be gutted of its central premises, and replaced with the premises of an independent argument for the finitude of the universe. But in doing so, are we modifying the argument, or replacing it? It seems to me it is being replaced, so that in the end, it is the same argument: the universe cannot be eternal because it is impossible to traverse an actual infnite number of events/effects.
Yes, Berlinski’s book was pretty good read. I wouldn’t put it on my top 10 list, but it was neat to see an agnostic philosopher expose the atheists and their arguments for what they are. At times, though, I couldn’t help but to think, Why isn’t Berlinski a theist? He is so well versed in theistic arguments, and commends many of them. But alas I must remember, when it comes to metaphysical commitments, there is much more in play than mere rationality. There is also the will, and it can make fools of us all.
Jason
LikeLike
August 18, 2008 at 2:52 pm
Larry,
If I understand you correctly, you think that rationally speaking, it’s a tossup as to whether one affirms an eternal or finite universe, and that the choice is left to personal aesthetic predispositions. If so, I couldn’t disagree more. There is compelling rational evidence from the disciplines of both science and philosophy that the universe is finite. The evidence is so compelling, in my estimation, that continued belief in an eternal universe is not rational. There is no basis for it, other than one’s prior metaphysical commitments, and the desire to avoid a beginning of the universe because of its theistic implications.
Whether an infinite series of events is possible is a philosophical question, so cosmology is not the appropriate field to appeal to for an answer to the question. Be that as it may, none of the cosmological models proposed to unseat the Standard Model which predicts an absolute singularity to the time-space-matter continuum, have been successful. They either have no evidence in their favor (being exercises in metaphysical speculations rather than empirical science), rely on mathematical fictions (Hawking’s imaginary numbers, quantum fluctuation models), or have been disconfirmed (Steady State, oscillating). Regardless of the model proposed (inflationary, quantum gravity, etc.), they cannot avoid an initial singularity. This was the conclusion of cosmologists Arvind Borde and Alexander Vilenkin: “A physically reasonable spacetime that is eternally inflating to the future must possess an initial singularity…. The fact that inflationary spacetimes are past incomplete forces one to address the question of what, if anything, came before.” (“Eternal Inflation and the Initial Singularity,” Physical Review Letters 72 [1994]: 3305, 3307.) And again, a “universe…in a state of eternal inflation without a beginning…is in fact not possible in future-eternal inflationary spacetimes as long as they obey some reasonable physical conditions.” Vilenkin said in another place, “It is said that an argument is what convinces reasonable men and a proof is what it takes to convince even an unreasonable man. With the proof now in place, cosmologists can no longer hide behind the possibility of a past-eternal universe. There is no escape, they have to face the problem of a cosmic beginning.” (Many Worlds in One [New York: Hill and Wang, 2006], p.176).
Jason
LikeLike
August 23, 2008 at 8:27 am
The argument concerning when the universe began is similar to the first cause argument. The argument fails, but then so does the first cause argument.
Cause and effect only occur within time. Before the universe there was no time, and therefore could be no causation. There is no evidence of causation outside the universe.
http://atheism.about.com/b/2005/11/26/god-causation-temporal-requirements-for-causes-to-exist-book-notes-arguing-for-atheism.htm
A similar argument could be made with the origin of humans, and where all mortal human beings came from.
P1 Human history consists of a causal series of a pair of mortal humans begetting humans.
P2 A series of causes must have a first cause.
P3. Because a mortal human can only be caused by a pair of mortal humans, the first cause is a pair of mortal humans which we call God.
Obviously, the fact that we only observe humans coming from humans tells us nothing about the ultimate origin of humanity.
LikeLike
August 23, 2008 at 5:39 pm
Jason,
Are you going to write about Obama and the Born Alive Infant Protection Act? How about an open thread every now and then for people to comment on anything? Or a thread for suggested topics?
Arthur
LikeLike
August 25, 2008 at 2:28 pm
Arthur,
To say “cause and effect only occur within time,” you must assume the only type of causation is temporal in nature. In addition to temporal causal priority, there is also logical causal priority. Hume exemplified this type of causal priority with a ball resting eternally on a pillow. He pointed out that the concavity of the pillow would be caused by the ball, and yet there is no temporal priority of the ball over the pillow. It is logically prior, only. Likewise, God is logically prior to the universe, although not temporally prior. The act of creation would be the first instance of time. “Prior” to this God existed changelessly.
Your analogy to humans is not sufficient. There is a difference between asking what causes some particular X in the universe to exist, and asking what caused the universe itself to exist. You cannot assume that what cannot be known for the part, cannot be known of the whole. In the case of the whole, we know what the beginning looked like, and thus can infer a sufficient cause. In the case of human origins, we do not know what the beginning looked like, and thus cannot infer a sufficient cause for it.
I may not be able to say what caused the first humans to exist, but it is assumed that there is a cause. Why? The principle of causation is intuitive to us. We know things do not come into existence uncaused. Why abandon this intuition when it comes to the universe? I cannot see any reason to do so that does not beg the question in favor of naturalism/atheism.
Jason
LikeLike
August 25, 2008 at 2:31 pm
Arthur,
No, I do not plan to blog on Obama’s position on the born-alive infant protection act. I have read various information on the controversy, but it is not something I have followed intensely.
Yes, I could create posts for open discussion once in a while. Suggested topics could be proposed there as well (or on any other post for that matter).
Jason
LikeLike
October 7, 2008 at 2:04 pm
In reference to Berlinski’s analysis regarding Thomas Aquinas’ argument, it is obvious that the only reasonable explanation for the complexity of the universe and life came as a result of Divine intervention. When archaeologists unearth
ancient civilizations, they don’t assume that they formed by themselves even though not present during construction, do they? Yet of course, they search with the mentality and expectation of seeing human artifacts and ruins.
One doesn’t assume that the Taj Mahal, in all its architectural beauty and excellence formed by chance, so how could we presume the same when comes to the universe and life on earth? I don’t desire to insult or degrade anyone for their accomplishments, but does it matter if you posess a Ph.d and or a master’s and can’t come to terms with the simplest of realities? I’m thankful for science and its many contributions to alleviating the suffering of mankind. I’m astounded at our achievments as a human race. Yet it is my sincere belief that based upon existence itself that it is because the inspiration of the Almighty that we have an understanding mind.
LikeLike
October 7, 2008 at 5:20 pm
Nathaniel,
I absolutely agree with you, but to be clear, you have offered a design argument, which is quite different from the type of argument Berlinski offered and critiqued.
I tend to think Berlinksi’s argument was a bad argument for God’s existence because it contains question-begging premises. But there are other cosmological and causal arguments that successfully prove (in the philosophical sense of the word, meaning the conclusion is logically sound because it follows from true premises) God exists.
Jason
LikeLike